Bilge wrote:
> Do the laws of physics demand that clocks be synchronized? Let's take a wild guess and suppose the answer is no.
Not bad for a wild guess.
Correct; and that conclusion is based on what the fantastic repercussions to the universe might be if the answer was yes. It's obvious that violating the laws of physics would have serious consequences. See the previous post.
Bilge wrote:
> Imagine, then, every observer in every frame of reference deciding to set his clocks in whatever way he wanted.
OK. So that means there exists absolutely no relationship between any two clocks.
Bilge wrote:
> The consequences would be disastrous for relativists.
Why is that? I think you have turned something obvious into something mystical.
Keep reading.
Bilge wrote:
> The Lorentz transformation then couldn't possibly be the correct rule to express how events (x,t) get mapped into events (x',t') in moving frames of reference.
That is completely silly. You've said above that observers set their clocks as they choose. So far you haven't specified how two observers satisfy the first postulate.
We've already agreed that there is no law of physics preventing every observer in the universe from resetting every clock to some time other than what's given by standard Einsteinian synchronization and the Lorentz transformation. Consequently, you're just interrupting a valid argument.
Bilge wrote:
So sure, so long as you don't satisfy the first postulate, you can do anything you want. Once you impose the first postulate as a constraint, your choices are severely limited.
Ah ha. You believe that the laws of physics demand that clocks be synchronized!
Bilge wrote:
> Have you ever heard that the homogeneity and isotropy of space and time require linear coordinate transformations? I have just now proven that ridiculous myth to be false.
No, you haven't.
The point of the Lorentz transformation is to give a rule expressing how events (x,y,z,t) in one frame of reference translate into events (x',y',z',t') for moving frames of reference. Start with Einstein's standard synchronization. If the clock at (x,y,z) in one frame reads time t, reset it to read time t+f(x,y,z) for a nonlinear function f. Do this for all clocks at every point. If you continue this tangling procedure frame by frame, common sense says that you're going to end up with an extraordinarily complicated nonlinear mess. Each frame of reference can have its own synchronization scheme. There is no limit to the complexity. If you dare, index all the frames with a parameter alpha. Let the offset function f(alpha,x,y,z) be nonmeasurable at every point. Physicists claim that the end result must be linear. You, my friend, are in big trouble.
Bilge wrote:
Homogeneity and isotropy require the form of the equations of motion to have no explicit dependence on the coordinates. You have to define things like energy, momentum, angular momentum (or some quantities you want to call "laws of physics") such that any of your inertial observers defines them in the same way in their own frames.
Why is that my problem? It's clear that refusing to synchronize clocks has no adverse affect on the universe. I think you're just backpedaling and trying to argue that the laws of physics demand that clocks be synchronized.